Andy Woods Ministries

Stumbled on to a new pastor-teacher!

This gent was on Prophecy & the News, but actually stumbled upon one of his teaching vids on YouTube.

I followed the info on the YT page and learned a bit about him.  He has his doctrinal ducks in a row and basically is a teacher.  Enjoy!

http://andywoodsministries.org/

https://www.youtube.com/c/AndyWoodsBibleStudy

Thanks JH! Found this video, it's excellent!

The Controversy on the Word Apostasia in 2 Thessalonians 2:3 - Andy Woods




Published on Apr 30, 2017




Gary Stearman and Andy Woods discuss in great detail the word apostasia, falling away in 2 Thessalonians 2:3.  Andy Woods gives 10 arguments why it means physical departure and not apostasy in this verse.

Finally watched the video - excellent!
Andy Woods uses the Liddell & Scott Greek-English Lexicon...

http://perseus.uchicago.edu/Reference/LSJ.html

Tryphena wrote:Finally watched the video - excellent!
Andy Woods uses the Liddell & Scott Greek-English Lexicon...

http://perseus.uchicago.edu/Reference/LSJ.html

Interesting I was just using the perseus.echicago.edu/hopper to look up a term in Mat 2:7...


φαινομενου αστερος   phenomenou asteros...  found a phrase in some of Lucian's work in his De Astrology with this phrase, αστροσις φαινομενου, astrosis phenomenou, which there gets translated as "... appeareth amongst the constellations..."




I had like an two hours ago used that sites /Reference/LSJ.html to look for this word, φαινομενου and it didn't take me very far to that exact word-form.   I have been using the Liddell & Scott Greek-English Lexicon for some time now as I had gotten frustrated with only using Strong's.


Strong's only link this word is in his G5316 φαινο -- phainō -- and shows it as verb, but then the μενου -- menou -- sees to get left out as a verbal ending or suffix in all sorts of ways in many different Dictionaries and Lexicons.  


So I did a LSJ search on μενου, and got no results at all.  I did a search in Xiphos and e-Sword of the Textus Receptus for that partial, μενου, and got 178 verses found, the super majority of them seem to be in a compound verb word-form. I find that interesting and confusing. 


Oh, well, will continue looking for a solution to that μενου and find its own root word-form if it is a verb.


Good to see someone discover the Lidell & Scott and are using it.


Oh, this Mat 2:7 is part of the "star of Bethlehem" stuff.  It would have been very interesting if that asteros was astrosis instead.. would have been "the constellation appeared".  But needless to say the Greek there is definitely "tou... asteros", "this star appeared" or "that star appeared" or "this star appeared."  The verb form of the phenomenou is given by Robert's Morphology as "a verb, present, voice of either a middle or passive, participle, genative, singular, masculine" 
 

Whew.  Being in the Present tense.. "appears" or "is appearing" sort of sense.  But it acts like the meno is being 'ignored'.  Am trying to see how it is that the KJV and others have cast this into a past tense, "... time the star appeared."   Perhaps the voice it is written in is the difference.  Instead of "the time of this star's appearing."


Asteros is a noun, genative, singular, masculine, so I see that the "star's appearing" or "star's appearance" is the better way to put it -- instead of in past tense.


Apostasia is an interesting word, as ya'al are seeing from the video discourse linked above.  As many decades as I have been dealing with 2nd Thess 2:3... I have reached a decision that there are several non-mutual-exclusive ways to handle this that do not contradict themselves nor the rest of Scripture.  I think sometimes there are several parallel levels or layers in so much of the writings of Paul.  I think perhaps too much time is spend on straw-men that say there is only one and only one way that word can be handled.  It can be all of these at the same time: meaning a departure out from among The Rebellion that "god of this age" is in rebellion against Heaven.  And at the same time a "Falling Away From Sound Doctrine."  And at the same time be a "departure up from the surface of the earth to go meet the Lord in the air."  And at the same time be "the departure out from the state of mortality" and "falling away from mortality and gaining immortality".   -- If you understand what I just wrote in this paragraph, you might be ahead of me.  LOL.

Things to be aware of.  If you read the KJV the phrase in 2nd Th 2:2 is "the day of Christ".

The NIV has that phrase as, "the day of the Lord."

Some translations have it as "the day of Christ"
Some translations have it as "the day of the Lord."

It is the Alexandrian manuscript stream of the Greek has it as, "tou κυριου," tou kuriou", "the Lord"  This is one of the texts that the NIV follows in this verse.

The Textus Receptus Stephan's as it as "tou christou" -- "the Christ"  -- The KJV uses that.

The Scrivener 1894 Textus Receptus as it as "tou christou" -- "the Christ."

The Byzantine Majority has it as "tou christou -- "the Christ"

You will notice that at times the video teacher is using the phrase, "the Lord".

Why is this important?  There are times in the New Testament when the English uses the phrase, "the Lord," it will be in a quote from the Old Testament, and when you see it in the Hebrew Old Testament sometimes its Adonay (the lord) and some times it is Adonia, and some times it is Yahweh.

I also want to comment that I am discovering that use of the Translators injecting the definite article "the" when there is no support of it in any of the Greek is quite misleading in several instances.

Also that the same Greek words that show a Greek 'definite article' can also be views as demonstrative pronouns, 'this, that, these, those' and one should at least try these on instead of the seemingly automatic English "the".

What I am finding myself doing is that every time in a verse in the English I run into the English "The" and I finding myself checking the Greek text to see if that 'the' is supported by any Greek definite article or demostrative pronoun or not.  Several times I have encounted it to be the case that there was not Greek definite article nor demostrative pronoun in the Greek yet the Translators figures they needed to have that word, "the" injected into it.  Some times doing so works out in fact to be a bit misleading, sometimes it is a bit more than just a bit misleading and quite misleading.

Just a word of caution about "the" in English.  

Andy Woods has it correct there the Greek does support the use of "the" in front of 'man of lawlessness".

Found this to be comforting for these times.

 Was wanting sumpin' meaty to listen to today!  Thanks!

I'm up to episode 20 now, I believe there are a total of 75 lessons in AW Revelation study